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Wednesday, 3 June 2026

On translation and anachronism

The other day, I tweeted about Tom Payne’s translation of The Art of Love: “Picked up this copy of “The Art of Love” but I had to quit after several pages. The translator used phrases like “girlfriend”, “safe sex”, “one-night stand”, etc. This is Ovid!” 

The tweet went semi-viral, attracting some obnoxious people who seem to think that nobody’s allowed to say a single word about a translation from Latin unless they know the language—a phenomenon that never occurred when I discussed translations of Russian, French, Japanese novels over the years—this strangely seems to only happen with Latin and ancient Greek. 

However, I also got many good comments from both people who agreed and disagreed with my complaint and knew Latin. And it led me to think more about this subject: how traditional or modern should a translation be? When is it too modern? When does it appear anachronistic? Because these things seem to be arbitrary, and most of the time, just come down to personal preference. 

When we want to read 19th century Russian novels, for example, we can go for a translation into 19th century English, as the Maudes and Constance Garnett were alive around the same time, or we can go for a modern translation. With Don Quixote, we can read Thomas Shelton if we want 17th century English (it’s also the version that Shakespeare read). But we do not have contemporary English translations—in the sense of “from the same period”—of Homer or Sophocles or Ovid—so all translations are modern—various levels of modernity. I can see the argument that a Victorian translation of Ovid is not any less anachronistic than a new translation—it may even impose Victorian sensibilities on the poems. I however do not buy the argument that because Ovid was modern for his time, he should be translated into today’s English, into the latest slang and colloquial terms (of course Ovid was contemporary to his contemporaries—what kind of argument is that?). However open and modern Ovid appears to us, he’s still a writer from ancient Rome and his works inevitably reflect the lifestyles and customs and values and beliefs of ancient Rome; it’s jarring to come across modern concepts in Ovid. Even if a word accurately conveys the meaning (which some people say “one-night stand” and “safe sex” here do), words don’t only have meanings—words also have connotations and associations—words have baggage. 

It might be arbitrary, and personal, that I prefer “Isn’t she exquisite?” (Aylmer and Louise Maude, revised by Amy Mandelker) to “She is gorgeous, isn’t she?” (Anthony Briggs) in War and Peace, but is it entirely arbitrary and personal when I say that “my ex” sticks out like a sore thumb in The Brothers Karamazov (Ignat Avsey)? Does it not take you out of the story when you read Don Quixote and come across “girlfriend”, “boyfriend”, or “a certain delicious je ne sais quoi” (Tom Lathrop)? Does it not make you stumble when you see “one-night stand” in a Roman poem? The entire translation may be in modern English, but some phrases stick out. Some phrases draw attention to themselves. 

Where we draw the line is the art of translation. Slang, I think, appears more obviously, distractingly anachronistic. 

Another thing to consider as well is that Homeric Greek or Shakespearean English for example wasn’t the way normal people talked. It’s one thing to modernise the language; why do some translators go for something colloquial and mundane when the original is highly literary? Is it not a fair point when readers—whether or not they know the original language—complain that Emily Wilson opts for phrases such as “a complicated man”, “tote bag”, “pep talk”, “playtime is over”, etc. in her translation of the Odyssey? Defenders of Emily Wilson have said “polytropos” means “complicated”, but “poly” means “many” and “tropos” means “turn”—surely Robert Fagles’s “the man of twists and turns” or Robert Fitzgerald’s “that man skilled in many ways of contending” is more interesting and evocative than Emily Wilson’s commonplace “a complicated man”? Those of us who do not know the original language and have to rely on translations may not be able to judge accuracy, but we can comment on other aspects of a translation: how it sounds in the target language, whether it’s good prose/ poetry, whether some choices appear anachronistic, whether we want to read it or switch to a different translation… And yet some people want to shut down the conversation, saying we’re not qualified to say anything if we don’t know the original. 

Let’s have a discussion.  

3 comments:

  1. A useful point of departure in any discussion of translation would be to involve readers in the ongoing debate over the accuracy and literary authenticity of the work of Russian translators Pevear and Volokonsky— a debate initiated by Gary Saul Morson in an attack on their work in the August, 2010 number of Commentary magazine.

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  2. Just finished listening to “If This Be Magic” by Daniel Hahn. Highly recommended - and an entertaining listen. I suspect I will wind up buying the print book as well. I really think that anyone interested in how translation works needs to read (or listen to) this book. I liked it so much that I got a copy of his “Catching Fire; A Translation Diary” to somehow find time to read. Just starting Jhumpa Lahiri’s “Translating Myself and Others.”

    As it happens, I am also listening to Mary Beard and Charlotte Higgins’ Instant Classics podcast, covering The Odyssey, in which the Wilson translation is used. They seem happy with it, and it’s their turf. But the version I found best to listen to was Stanley Lombardo’s. It is not merely a reading; it is an attempt to reconstruct a performance as it might have occurred among the Ancient Greeks. That’s a translation in context.

    All translation is approximate, and there are too many moving parts, some of them interdependent , to be able to choose one over the other, except as a matter of personal preference - that is, what speaks to you.

    If you are reading the New Testament, you will benefit from finding a volume which prints several translations in parallel. The translations sort of cluster around meaning, so that you can have a better sense of what the original might be saying. I sometimes read more than one translation of a particular book, or at least keep a different translation to hand for reference while I read the main one, for that reason.

    To me, a translation is not the same book, nor is it a different book, so much as it is a permutation: “any one of the many different ways or forms in which something exists or can be arranged.”

    Just for fun, Grok AI gave me this. Is it a translation - or a parody?

    Slang Version of the First Verse of The Odyssey (Gen Z / internet brainrot remix)
    Yo Muse, drop the tea on that dude of many plot twists,
    that absolute menace who got lost AF after he clapped Troy’s sacred city.
    Bro saw mad cities, pulled up on different crews, and read their whole vibe,
    caught endless Ls deep in his soul out on the ocean grind,
    just tryna save his own skin and get the squad back home.
    But nah—even tho he was going hard, he couldn’t save the boys.
    They straight-up cooked their own fade by being absolute clowns—
    ate the sacred cows of Helios like it was nothing.
    The Sun God said “bet” and deleted their homecoming arc.
    So hit me with the story from wherever, goddess daughter of Zeus—
    let’s run it back.


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  3. It's an interesting question. I would say that it depends on the text or even the particular expression being translated. For instance, in a translation of Petronius' Satyricon I would say that it's entirely valid to use slang etc. LIkewise, if one were translating Rochester's obscene poetry or Swift's "The Lady's Dressing Room" into a foreign language, it would be reasonable to use whatever is the current slang in the target language. The point of the original is to be current and vulgar. Whether that's reasonable for Ovid, I can't judge.

    Another somewhat related example: The Biblical books of Samuel and Kings several times use the Hebrew phrase "mashtin b'kir" which the King James accurately translates as "pisseth against a wall". Some more recent translations weaken the expression to "male". But here it seems to me the King James is right. The phrase was clearly vulgar when written and deliberately chosen by its author to be vulgar, and the translation should reflect that.

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