All the writings I have so far come across tell me that Shakespeare probably didn’t read ancient Greek plays: there were no English translations available at the time, writers from ancient Rome were more important, there’s no evidence that Shakespeare knew Greek or read the Greeks. But Latin translations were available, and I can’t help finding it unlikely that Shakespeare wasn’t curious about Greek tragedy: Roman writers, who influenced Shakespeare, were themselves heavily influenced or inspired by the Greeks; Francis Meres, the first to canonise Shakespeare, in 1598 (!) knew the Greeks (“As the Greek tongue is made famous and eloquent by Homer, Hesiod, Euripides, Aeschylus, Sophocles, Pindar, Phocylides and Aristophanes; and the Latin tongue by Virgil, Ovid, Horace, Silius Italicus, Lucanus, Lucretius, Ausonius and Claudianus: so the English tongue is mightily enriched and gorgeously invested in true ornaments and resplendent abiliments by Sir Philip Sidney, Spenser, Daniel, Drayton, Warner, Shakespeare, Marlowe and Chapman”); Ben Jonson knew the Greeks (mentioning Aeschylus, Sophocles, and Euripides in his poem about Shakespeare); and so on.
There is no way that Shakespeare was in such a circle and never read the Greeks.
In the Oresteia by Aeschylus, Agamemnon begins with a watchman, like Hamlet; the scene of Orestes confronting his mother Klytaimestra (or Clytemnestra) in Libation Bearers reminds me of Hamlet and Gertrude. There are also similarities between Hamlet and Sophocles’s Electra: both are revenge plays that focus more on the mind of the protagonist than on the revenge itself; Electra is consumed with hate, and concentrates all her hate on her mother Clytemnestra even though Aegisthus also took part in the killing; Hamlet seems to hate his mother even more than he hates Claudius; Electra thinks about her mother sleeping with the murderer of her father, so does Hamlet.
Sometimes the similarities don’t necessarily suggest influence—perhaps it’s simply that Shakespeare and these playwrights were writing about human nature and human nature doesn’t really change: for instance, Oedipus’s anger and bitterness at being abandoned by his children makes me think of King Lear. But I do wonder if the Oresteia and Sophocles’s Electra influenced Hamlet.
I also like to think that Shakespeare got inspiration from Euripides for The Winter’s Tale: he adapted the play from Robert Greene’s Pandosto but wanted to change the ending—he clearly didn’t care for all the incestuous stuff—so perhaps he got some ideas from Alcestis and Heracles. As my friend Himadri pointed out, Leontes, like Heracles, destroys his own family in a fit of madness; Leontes, like Heracles, has to live not only with the loss, but also with the guilt. I didn’t see strong parallels between Alcestis and The Winter’s Tale when I first read the play, but now that I’ve thought more about it, there are: however you interpret Hermione’s restoration to Leontes, the scene is a vision of resurrection; and as in Alcestis, the happiness in the ending of The Winter’s Tale is subdued, Leontes cannot undo what he has done to Hermione (and their son), the same way Admetus has to face the fact that he has let Alcestis die in his place.
Surely Shakespeare must have known these plays.
Thoughts?
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Update on 14/8/2025: Currently not on Twitter, I have more time to read literary essays on JSTOR and found, among others, two interesting essays about the subject of Shakespeare and the Greeks.
https://www.jstor.org/stable/2870800
In this essay, Louise Schleiner argues that Hamlet was influenced by Aeschylus’s Oresteia and Euripides’s Orestes.
“Whatever Shakespeare’s competence with Greek and Latin may have been (respect for his learning is fashionable again), I am convinced that at least some passages of Euripides’ Orestes and Aeschylus’ Oresteia (in the latter namely the graveyard and matricide scenes of the Libation Bearers) by some means influenced Hamlet. The concrete theatrical similarities between the Shakespearean and Aeschylean graveyard scenes and between the roles of Horatio and Pylades (in both Aeschylus and Euripides) are in my view too close to be coincidental. Furthermore, the churchyard scene of Hamlet does not occur in any of the play’s known sources or analogues: if it was not a sheer invention—and Shakespeare very seldom sheerly invented anything in the way of plot—it has some source not yet identified.”
She also argues that Shakespeare could easily borrow books from Ben Jonson’s large library, as they were fellow playwrights (and friends).
The main arguments for the possible influence are:
- Hamlet has “Orestean urge to kill his mother” (he may not say it but he’s “at considerable risk of killing her”);
- There are parallels between the graveyard scene in Libation Bearers and the one in Hamlet, which isn’t in Roman and medieval sources;
- Horatio seems to mirror Pylades, which may explain the inconsistency in the characterisation of Horatio (“Shakespeare had superimposed upon the domestic Horatio of the Ur-Hamlet the concept of Pylades, dear foreigner-companion of Orestes from his youth abroad, touchstone of justice and male friendship, soul mate and supporter of the Orestean hero with his dreadful commission to cleanse away his own mother’s evil and the usurping step-father whom that evil has enabled to take power”);
- Orestes is haunted by the Furies after taking revenge, the Furies seem to be let loose on Hamlet before he takes revenge.
These are interesting points, no?
https://www.jstor.org/stable/40210320
In this essay, Sarah Dewar-Watson argues that The Winter’s Tale may have been influenced by George Buchanan’s Latin translation of Alcestis.
Alcestis and Hermione are both restored to their husbands; in both plays, they are first veiled in the recognition scene; in both plays, a third party brings about the reunion of husband and wife; in both plays, the wife says nothing to the husband at the end.
After Alcestis’s departure to Hades, Admetus thinks about creating a sculpture (or something similar) of Alcestis:
“I will have an image of you, the work of a skilled craftsman’s hand, and lay it in my bed. I will kneel before it, clasping it in my arms, and call your name, and it will seem as though I hold my dear wife, although I do not. An empty pleasure, I know, but it will lighten my heavy heart. Or perhaps you will visit me in my dreams, and console me. We welcome a glimpse of our loved ones in our sleep, however long it lasts.”
Dewar-Watson argues:
“Buchanan interpolates the word statura at a crucial moment in the recognition scene: “O femina, / quaecumque tandem es, es profecto Alcestidi / modo et statura corporis simillima” (Lady, whoever you are, you are just like Alcestis, the very image of her form) (ll. 1137-39). This is a rendering of Euripides, lines 1061-63: “σύδ’, ώγύναι, / ήτις ποτ’ εί σύ, ταϋτ’ έχουσ’ Άλκήστιδι / μορφής μέτρ’ ίσθι καί προσήιξαι δέμας” (You, lady, whoever you are, have the exact form of Alcestis and your body is just like hers). Buchanan’s interpolation of the statue motif, therefore, provides a clear model for the device in the equivalent scene in Shakespeare. Buchanan’s variation on the source text is-like his interpolation of umbra-striking, since the rest of his translation is generally a very close rendering.
The link between Buchanan’s Alcestis and The Winter’s Tale is underscored by another verbal echo. In Euripides, Admetus exclaims to Heracles, “uń u’ έλης ήρημένον” (You destroy me, I who am already destroyed) (1. 1065), which Buchanan closely follows (“neve perdas perditum”) (1. 1141). The line is especially memorable because of the reduplicative effect provided by the cognate accusative, and it thus provides a likely source for Perdita’s name. Although the cognate accusative is an effect that English cannot readily accommodate, Shakespeare substitutes a bilingual pun (“Our Perdita is found” [5.3.121]), which playfully inverts the original grammatical structure. Where the cognates in Latin and Greek heavily reinforce a sense of loss and destruction, Shakespeare’s reconstruction of the syntax creates a new play on words in which the very idea of loss is countered and dispelled.”
One big difficulty here is separating the Greeks from Seneca and other Latin sources. All the Heracles stuff, for example, is easily from Hercules Furens, even from that play in English. No need for Latin, even, much like Shakespeare's use of Plutarch is all from the English version.
ReplyDeleteI guess another difficulty, for me, at least, is that I can easily believe that Shakespeare could have come up with essentially anything - plot, structure, language, anything - on his own. It is more surprising to me when I learn that some aspect of his plays was imitative.
Shakespeare has such strong affinities with the Greeks that I, too, find it hard to believe that he was never curious about those Latin versions of Euripides. He must have at least looked at some of them, right?
In my understanding Euripides is a Shakespearean figure. My Late Euripides is a highly Late Shakespearean figure. So in my interpretive world it is apparently Euripides who read Shakespeare.
Yeah, I'm going to have to read more Seneca and other Latin works. Also good point about Shakespeare coming up with anything himself. But but but, as you say, it's just hard to believe that he never picked up those plays.
ReplyDeleteWhat do you mean about Euripides being a Shakespearean figure though?
Maybe this post gives the idea:
ReplyDeletehttps://wutheringexpectations.blogspot.com/2022/07/heracles-by-euripides-these-are-poets.html
The closer we got to the end the more Shakespeare was mentioned, by me or someone else. The "late styles" have so many correspondences. Of course, Euripides is in his 60s and 70s while Shakespeare's late style was in his 40s.
Ah okay.
DeleteTom,
ReplyDeleteI've just added an update. Have a look.
Interesting. It’s certainly plausible that Shakespeare was influenced by these earlier writers. But, as you also note, it is quite possible the themes and ideas of Greek drama occurred separately to Shakespeare. What seems to make influence more likely is the fact that such writings available to him. In light of that, it’s hard to imagine he didn’t avail himself of them. And if he did avail himself, how could Greek drama not have also influenced him?
ReplyDeleteLuckily I worked through my epistemological crisis while reading the Greek plays. I had assumed that humanities scholars, when they claim to know things, had evidence. How wrong I was.
ReplyDeleteIf I change the frame of that Schleiner article to "let's assume that Shakespeare read the Latin Aeschylus and see what happens" then I am much happier.
The idea, for example, that Shakespeare did not invent scenes is laughable.
Hahaha.
ReplyDelete